auto-update(nvim): 2025-03-05 02:11:45
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@ -1146,6 +1146,65 @@ $
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arrow(x)_"Im" (t) = e^(lambda t) (sin(mu t) arrow(a) + cos(mu t) arrow(b)) \
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$
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== Visualizing complex eigenvalue solutions
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Consider the system
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$
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arrow(x)' = mat(2,-1;1,2) arrow(x)
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$
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The phase portrait is a spiral going out as $t -> infinity$, and facing
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counterclockwise.
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How can we determine the direction of motion? Test it at a simple point, say,
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$(1,0)$.
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$
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arrow(x)' = mat(2,-1;1,2) vec(1,0) = vec(2,1)
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$
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This vector points up, so the spiral is counterclockwise. In general we can
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determine it by checking the first column vector of $A$.
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== Second order linear DE as linear system
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Consider a damped, forced harmonic motion:
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$
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x'' + 3x' + 2x = cos(t)
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$
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Let $y(t) = x'(t)$. Then:
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$
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x'(t) &= y \
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y'(t) &= -2x - 3y + cos(t)
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$
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The system is written in matrix form as
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$
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arrow(x)'(t) = mat(0,1;-2,-3) arrow(x) + vec(0,cos(t))
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$
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This is a system of first order nonhomogenous differential equations.
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Consider the associated homogenous equations
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$
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x'' + 3x' + 2x = 0
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$
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corresponding to a system
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$
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arrow(x)(t) = mat(0,1;-2,-3) arrow(x)
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$
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A fundamental set is given by
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$
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r_1 &= -1 <-> vec(1,-1) \
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r_2 &= -2 <-> vec(1,-2)
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$
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Any vector valued function of the following form is a solution
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$
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arrow(x)(t) = c_1 e^(-t) vec(1,-1) + c_2 e^(-2t) vec(1,-2)
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$
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Solutions tend to 0 as $t -> infinity$. The equilibrium $x=0$ is asymptotically
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stable. Hence it is called an *asymptotically stable node*.
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= Repeated eigenvalues, nonhomogenous systems
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== Classification of equilibria $n=2$
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@ -1197,3 +1197,118 @@ $ z = x + (b c - a d) / (b d + 1) $
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Then $(x + y)/2$ is obviously rational and strictly between $x$ and $y$.
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]
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= Constructions of functions
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#definition[
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For functions $f : A -> B$ and $g : B -> C$, the *inverse* of $f$ is the
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relation from $B -> A$:
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$
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f^(-1) = {(x,y) | (y,x) in f}
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$
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and the *composite* of $f$ and $g$ is the relation from $A$ to $C$
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$
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g compose f = {(x,z) | (exists y in B)((x,y) in f and (y,z) in g)}
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$
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]
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These are _relations_, nothing in their definitions guarantee that either is a
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function.
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#theorem[
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Let $A$, $B$, and $C$ be sets, let $f : A -> B$ and $g : B -> C$. Then $g
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compose f$ is a function from $A$ to $C$, and $"Dom"(g compose f) = A$.
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]<compose-domain>
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#proof[
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First let us show that $g compose f$ is a relation from $A$ to $C$.
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Suppose $(a,b) in f$ such that $a in A$ and $b in B$. Then there exists a
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pair $(b,c) in g$ with some $c in C$. Then by the definition of function
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composition, we can form a pair $(a,c)$ from these, still with $a in A$ and
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$c in C$. By definition, $g compose f$ is the set of all these $(a,c)$ we
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form and is a relation from $A$ to $C$. Hence $g compose f$ is a relation
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from $A$ to $C$.
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Now we show that $g compose f$ is indeed a function. The key idea is to show
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that any $(x,y)$ and $(x,z)$ in $g compose f$ must have $y = z$, hence
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mapping each input to exactly one output.
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Suppose that $(x,y) in g
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compose f$ and $(x,z) in g compose f$. Because $(x,y) in g compose f$, there
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exists $u in B$ such that $(x,u) in f$ and $(u,y) in g$. Likewise, there
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exists $v in B$ such that $(x,v) in f$ and $(v,y) in g$. Because $f$ is a
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function and $(x,u)$ and $(x,v)$ are in $f$, we have $u = v$. Because $g$ is
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a function, $(u,y)$ and $(v,z)$ are in $g$, and $u = v$, we have $y = z$.
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Now we show the domain of $g compose f$. Suppose $(x,y) in g compose f$. Then
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$(x,u) in f$ for some $u in B$ such that $(u, y) in g$. Hence the domain of
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$g compose f$ is the same as the domain of $f$. So $"Dom"(g compose f)$ is
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$A$.
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]
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#theorem[
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Let $A$, $B$, $C$, and $D$ be sets. Let $f : A -> B$, $g : B -> C$, and $h :
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C -> D$. Then $(h compose g) compose f = h compose (g compose f)$.
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]
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#proof[
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By @compose-domain, the domain of both functions are $A$. Let $x in A$. Then
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$((h compose g) compose f)(x) = (h compose g)(f(x)) = h(g(f(x))) = h((g
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compose f)(x)) = (h compose (g compose f))(x)$. The functions are equal.
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]
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#theorem[
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Let $f : A -> B$. Then $f compose I_A = f$ and $I_B compose f = f$.
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]
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#proof[
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$"Dom"(f compose I_A) = "Dom"(I_A) = A = "Dom"(f)$. Suppose $x in A$, then
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$(f compose I_A)(x) = f(I_A (x)) = f(x)$. Therefore $f compose I_A = f$.
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$"Dom"(I_B compose f) = "Dom"(f) = A$. Now suppose $x in A$, then $(I_B
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compose f)(x) = I_B (f(x)) = f(x)$. Therefore $I_B compose f = f$.
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]
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#theorem[
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Let $f : A -> B$ with $"Rng"(f) = C$. If $f^(-1)$ is a function, then $f^(-1) compose f = I_A$ and $f compose f^(-1) = I_C$.
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]
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#proof[
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Suppose that $f : A -> B$ and $f^(-1)$ is a function. Then $"Dom"(f^(-1) compose f) = "Dom"(f)$. Thus $"Dom"(f^(-1) compose f) = A = "Dom"(I_A)$. Additionally, $"Dom"(f compose f^(-1)) = "Dom"(f^(-1))$. By a known theorem, $"Dom"(f^(-1)) = "Rng"(f) = C$.
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Suppose that $x in A$. Because $(x,f(x)) in f$, we have $(f(x), x) in f^(-1)$. Therefore $(f^(-1) compose f)(x) = f^(-1) (f(x)) = x = I_A (x)$. Therefore $f^(-1) compose f = I_A$.
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Suppose that $y in C$. Because $(y,f^(-1) (y)) in f^(-1)$, $(f^(-1) (y),y) in f$. Then $f compose f^(-1) = f(f^(-1) (y)) = y = I_C$.
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]
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#theorem[
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Let $h$ and $g$ be functions with $"Dom"(h) = A$ and $"Dom"(g) = B$. If $A sect B = emptyset$, then $h union g$ is a function with domain $A union B$. Furthermore,
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$
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(h union g)(x) = cases(h(x) &"if" x in A, g(x) &"if" x in B)
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$
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]
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#proof[
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Suppose $(x,y) in (h union g)$. Then either $x in A$ or $x in B$. So $"Dom"(h
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union g) = A union B$. Suppose that $(x,u)$ and $(x,v)$ are in $h union g$.
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Then either $(x,u) in h$ or $(x,u) in g$, but not both, since $"Dom"(h)$ is
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disjoint with $"Dom"(g)$. The same goes for $(x,v)$. Then if both $(x,u)$ and
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$(x,v)$ are in $f$, because it is a function, $u = v$. Repeat the same
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reasoning if they are in $g$. Therefore $h union g$ is indeed a function with
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domain $A union B$.
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Now we show the second part. Suppose $(x,y) in h union g$. Then either $x in
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A$ or $x in B$, but not both. If $x in A$, then $(x,y) in h$. Hence $(h union
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g)(x) = h(x)$. If $x in B$, then $(x,y) in g$. Hence $(h union g)(x) = g(x)$.
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]
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#definition[
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Let $f : A -> B$, and $D subset.eq A$. The *restriction* of $f$ to $D$ is the function
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$
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lr(f|)_D = {(x,y) | y = f(x) "and" x in D}
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$
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]
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#definition[
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Let $f$ be a real function defined on an interval $I$. Then we say $f$ is *increasing on $I$* if $x < y => f(x) < f(y)$ for all $x,y in I$. Likewise, $f$ is *decreasing on $I$* if $x < y => f(x) > f(y)$ for all $x,y in I$.
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]
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125
documents/by-course/math-8/pset-8/main.typ
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125
documents/by-course/math-8/pset-8/main.typ
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@ -0,0 +1,125 @@
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#import "@youwen/zen:0.1.0": *
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#import "@preview/cetz:0.3.2"
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#show: zen.with(
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title: "Homework 8",
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author: "Youwen Wu",
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)
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#set heading(numbering: none)
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#show heading.where(level: 2): it => [#it.body.]
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#show heading.where(level: 3): it => [#it.body.]
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#set par(first-line-indent: 0pt)
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#show figure: it => {
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pad(
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y: 10pt,
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it,
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)
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}
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Problems:
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- 4.2: \#1g, 2b, 3b, 6, 7, 8, 14bd
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- 4.3: \#1bdeh, 2bdeh, 3ab, 5, 6, 7, 8
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#outline()
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= 4.2
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== 1
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=== g
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$f(x) = 1 / (1-x)$
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$f^(-1) (x) = 1 - 1 / x$
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== 2
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=== b
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$f(x) = x^2 + 2x$, $g(x) = 2x + 1$.
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$
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f compose g &= (2x+1)^2 + 2(2x+1) = 4x^2 + 8x + 3 \
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g compose f &= 2(x^2 + 2x) + 1 = 2x^2 + 4x + 1
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$
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== 3
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=== b
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$"Dom"(f compose g) = RR$, $"Dom"(g compose f = RR$.
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$"Rng"(f compose g) = [3,infinity]$, $"Rng"(g compose f) = [1, infinity]$.
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== 6
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#theorem[
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If $f : A -> B$, then $I_B compose f = f$.
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]
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#proof[
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$"Dom"(I_B compose f) = "Dom"(f) = A$. Now suppose $x in A$, then $(I_B
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compose f)(x) = I_B (f(x)) = f(x)$. Therefore $I_B compose f = f$.
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]
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== 7
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#theorem[
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Let $f : A -> B$ with $"Rng"(f) = C$. If $f^(-1)$ is a function, $f compose f^(-1) = I_C$.
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]
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#lemma[
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$"Dom"(f^(-1)) = "Rng"(f)$.
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#proof[
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Suppose $(x,y) in f$. Then $(y,x) in f^(-1)$. Therefore for any $x$ in $"Dom"(f)$, $x$ is also in $"Rng"(f^(-1))$, so $"Dom"(f) subset.eq "Rng"(f^(-1))$.
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Suppose $(x,y) in f^(-1)$. Then $(y,x) in f$. So for any $y in "Rng"(f^(-1))$, $y$ is also in $"Dom"(f)$. So $"Rng"(f^(-1)) subset.eq "Dom"(f)$. Therefore $"Dom"(f) = "Rng"(f^(-1))$.
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]
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]<dom-inverse-rng>
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#proof[
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Suppose that $f : A -> B$ and $f^(-1)$ is a function. By @dom-inverse-rng, $"Dom"(f^(-1)) = "Rng"(f) = "Dom"(I_C) = C$.
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Suppose that $y in C$. Because $(y,f^(-1) (y)) in f^(-1)$, $(f^(-1) (y),y) in f$. Then $f compose f^(-1) = f(f^(-1) (y)) = y = I_C$.
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]
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== 8
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The graph of $lr(f|)_A$ is simply the collection of points ${(1,1),(2,-2),(3,-5),(4,-8)}$
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The graph of $lr(f|)_[-1,3]$ is simply the line given by $f(x) = 4 - 3x$
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restricted between the $x$-coordinates $[-1,3]$.
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The graph of $lr(f|)_(2,4]$ is the line given by $f(x) = 4 - 3x$ between $x =
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2$ to $x = 4$, with a hole at $x = 2$.
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The graph of $lr(f|)_{6}$ is simply the point at $(6,-14)$.
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== 14
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=== b
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$
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&h : [-1, infinity) -> RR, &&h(x) = x^2 + 1 \
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&g : (-infinity, -1] -> RR, &&g(x) = x + 3
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$
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$h union g$ is a function only if $h(x) = g(x)$ where their domain overlaps at
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-1. We check $h(-1) = g(-1) = 2$ is indeed true. Everywhere else $h union g$ is
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either $g(x)$ or $h(x)$ which are both functions. Therefore it is a function.
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=== d
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$
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&h : (-infinity,2] -> RR, &&h(x) = cos x \
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&g : [2, infinity) -> RR, &&g(x) = x^2
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$
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We check that $h$ and $g$ agree at their overlapping domain. $h(2) = cos 2$,
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but $g(2) = 4$. Without further computation note that $cos(x)$ gives values
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only in $[-1,1]$ so $h(2) != g(2)$. $h union g$ would contain both $(2,4)$ and
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$(2,cos 2)$ so it's not a function.
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37
documents/by-course/math-8/pset-8/package.nix
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37
documents/by-course/math-8/pset-8/package.nix
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{
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pkgs,
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typstPackagesCache,
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typixLib,
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cleanTypstSource,
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flakeSelf,
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...
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}:
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let
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src = cleanTypstSource ./.;
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commonArgs = {
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typstSource = "main.typ";
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fontPaths = [
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# Add paths to fonts here
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# "${pkgs.roboto}/share/fonts/truetype"
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];
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virtualPaths = [
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# Add paths that must be locally accessible to typst here
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# {
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# dest = "icons";
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# src = "${inputs.font-awesome}/svgs/regular";
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# }
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];
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XDG_CACHE_HOME = typstPackagesCache;
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SOURCE_DATE_EPOCH = builtins.toString flakeSelf.lastModified;
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};
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in
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typixLib.buildTypstProject (
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commonArgs
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// {
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inherit src;
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}
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)
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